[Why3-club] Specifying the order in which loop invariant may be proven

Nuno Gaspar nmpgaspar at gmail.com
Wed Mar 26 15:43:04 CET 2014

not exactly what you want, but

invariant {I(i+1) -> J(i)}

wouldn't do?

2014-03-26 15:31 GMT+01:00 Alan Schmitt <alan.schmitt at polytechnique.org>:

> Hello,
> It seems to me that when several invariants are given for a loop, each
> one is proven separately assuming every invariant at the previous step.
> For instance, in the following:
> #+begin_src why3
> for i = 0 to n do
>   invariant {I(i)}
>   invariant {J(i)}
>   ...
> done
> #+end_src
> one has to prove I(i+1) assuming I(i) and J(i), and the same for J(i+1).
> Is it possible to rely on the order in which the invariants are given,
> such that I(i+1) is proven I(i) and J(i), as before, but J(i+1) is
> proven using I(i+1) and J(i)?
> Thanks,
> Alan
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